Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 17.06.2025 06:13
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
Why do people stay in cults after they have joined?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Why are the democrats keep insisting that there are more than two genders?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.